DiscoverWhat's new on HuffdufferIs God an Outlaw? Gal 3:15-17 says So. What says Jesus? What says "Human Law" Paul Cites as Proof?
Is God an Outlaw? Gal 3:15-17 says So. What says Jesus? What says "Human Law" Paul Cites as Proof?

Is God an Outlaw? Gal 3:15-17 says So. What says Jesus? What says "Human Law" Paul Cites as Proof?

Update: 2025-11-13
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Paul in Galatians 3:15-17 says the Sinai Covenant 430 Years after Abrahmic Covenant could not abridge the message of "faith alone" in Gen 15:6 (supposedly) due to "human law" that says a covenant cannot be "amended or altered." Hence the Sinai Covenant is allegedly null and void due to obviously Exodus 20:6 where God YHWH says He grants "mercy to those who love me and obey my commandments" -- quoted by Jesus in Matthew 19 and Luke 18. Paul claims God was powerless to do so due to "human law" principles that a "covenant once made" (meaning in Gen 15:5-6 the unilateral promise by God to Abram of a child in old age). This video centers on whether "human law" - Roman law of that era -- agrees with Paul or not.

This video focuses on an overlooked passage that undermines the validity of Paul's argument -- Gal. 3:15-17. Step 1 in analysis is to recognize that Paul is saying a unilateral promise of a child in old age by God to Paul, which led to Gen 15:6 -- supposedly about God reckoning Abram's "belief" in this promise made Abram "just" and hence 'saved (not mentioned in the text) -- in which case Paul describes this as a "covenant" (but it wasn't; it was a unilateral promise). The covenant with Abram is in Gen 17 where God changes Abram's name to Abraham and says He "will enter into a covenant" with Abraham. God had not done that previously.

A FEW VERSES BACK OF GAL 3:15-17 IS GAL 3:6-9 THAT AFFIRM THE PROMISE OF A CHILD IN OLD AGE WAS JUSTIFICATION WHICH PAUL READS AS A 'COVENANT' THAT CANNOT BE ALTERED AT SINAI (10 COMMANDMENTS)

Paul's reliance upon Genesis 15:6 is to support his theory of a "promise" that included "faith" makes one "just" - righteous. (It does not, as Paul mistranslated, and it reads "Abram believed God [i.e., about a child in old age] and counted it to him [i.e., to God] as righteousness [i.e., toward Abram]." The KJV reads that the subject of "count" is NOT "it was" counted, but rather the subject of "believed"is the same subject of "count" -- adding in a "he" although no "he" was used as it was implied in the case of the verb "count" in Hebrew, as Hamilton explained in his work on Genesis].

To be clear, the verses just before Gal 3:15-17 that Paul is relying upon as "covenant" promise when it is certainly not a covenant - is specifically Gal. 3:6-9. Those verses read:

Galatians 3:6-9
English Standard Version

6 just as Abraham “believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”?

7 Know then that it is those of faith who are the sons of Abraham. 8 And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify[a] the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “In you shall all the nations be blessed.” 9 So then, those who are of faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith.

Thus it was this passage Paul was insulating by claiming God could not "amend or alter" this alleged "justification" by faith by asserting God could not "amend or alter" that promise because it was a "covenant," and under "human law" cannot be altered or amended.

Blessings Doug
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Is God an Outlaw? Gal 3:15-17 says So. What says Jesus? What says "Human Law" Paul Cites as Proof?

Is God an Outlaw? Gal 3:15-17 says So. What says Jesus? What says "Human Law" Paul Cites as Proof?